Study Niddah folio 34B with parallel Hebrew-English text, traditional commentary, and modern study tools. Free access to Babylonian Talmud online.
even if it is in the womb of a non-Jew woman. If she discharges this semen, it imparts ritual impurity. And by contrast, the semen of a non-Jew is ritually pure wherever it is found, even if it is in the womb of a Jewish woman, except for any urine that intermingled with it. In other words, if the
The Talmud continues: And if you would say in rejection of this proof: Here as well, the baraita means that the semen of a non-Jew is ritually pure by Torah law but impure by rabbinic law, one may respond: Since the baraita states that the urine of a non-Jew is impure, is that to say that her urine
The Master said above in a baraita: The semen of a Jew is impure wherever it is found, even if it is in the womb of a non-Jew woman. The Talmud suggests: Let one resolve from this baraita a dilemma that Rav Pappa raises. As Rav Pappa raises a dilemma: What is the halakha with regard to the semen of
The Talmud rejects this suggestion: Rav Pappa does not raise his dilemma with regard to the semen of a Jew that is in the womb of a non-Jew woman within 3 days of their sex, as such semen is impure. Rather, when Rav Pappa raises his dilemma it is with regard to semen in the womb of the non-Jew more
The Talmud explains the sides of the dilemma: Do we say that as Jewish women are concerned about the proper fulfillment of mitzvot, their bodies are hot and semen in their wombs becomes foul within 3 days, whereas non-Jew women are not concerned about the proper fulfillment of mitzvot and therefore